In the lesson it explicitly states "Note that in French, if you're using après + [verbe], we consider that this action always takes place in the past of when you're speaking. "
However the following was a question for the tests on the lesson.
"After going food shopping, I'll help you with your homework." This is neither 'said in the past' NOR actually already happed(ie 'in the past'). While inelegant, it means "After i go shopping I will help you ..." The stipulated correct answer was "Après avoir fait les courses, je t'aiderai avec tes devoirs.'
Seems to fit the following translation "Apres je aurai fait les courses, je t'aiderai avec tes devoirs. Since both aactions are scheduled for the future with the homework help being predicated on the shopping being done.
Agree - I also found the explanation marked by the first green bar confusing.
I think it would be clearer to simply note that effectively in French the expression is always equivalent to the English “after having done (verbed )”. That is, there is no direct French equivalent to the English “after doing (verbing )”.
A full example could be included, such as. : 1. Après avoir fait les courses, je t’aiderai - Correct
2. Après (je) fais les courses, je t’aiderai - Incorrect
(A 2nd full example from the current set with a verb other than faire and in different tense would also help).
Your logic is impeccable, Jameson. The explanation in the lesson is not quite as impeccable.
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