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se faire

Andrew O.B2Kwiziq community member

se faire

I see in an exercise that "I'm having new sandals made." is translated as "Je me fais faire de nouvelles sandales." I don't understand why the "me" is necessary in this case. I can see why for verbs like brosser, couper, raser, doucher, and so on. But not in this case. What am I missing?

This question relates to:French lesson "to do, make"
Asked 3 weeks ago
Maarten K.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor Correct answer

Andrew,

As I understand it, if you made them for yourself it would be ‘ Je me fais de nouvelle sandales ‘. 

Without the ‘ me ‘ the sandals could be for anyone or anything. English often leaves out the ‘ for me ‘, French doesn’t ( informal casual speech where context is clear, an exception sometimes  ).

Adding the causative ‘ faire ‘ to indicate ‘having (someone else) make them for me’ gives ‘ Je me fais faire de nouvelles sandales ‘, as per the examples in the lesson.

 Faire + [infinitive] = to have something done in French (Causative)

Jim J.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Bonjour Andrew,

I agree that using an indirect object pronoun (me) should not be necessary  --  Perhaps to reinforce who the sandals were for.

https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/faire-reflexive-causative/

Bonne journée

Jim

Andrew O.B2Kwiziq community member

Thanks. The faire-reflexive-causitive link explained it best. J'ai apprécié votre aide.

se faire

I see in an exercise that "I'm having new sandals made." is translated as "Je me fais faire de nouvelles sandales." I don't understand why the "me" is necessary in this case. I can see why for verbs like brosser, couper, raser, doucher, and so on. But not in this case. What am I missing?

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