"We might say Do you have any change? but in French you cannot say Fais-tu avoir de la monnaie?" I understand this, but it is a non-sequitur where it currently sits, and seems a loose thread. It does not relate to the immediately forgoing discussion on use of n'est-ce pas, or any of the other ways of asking questions in this lesson. It is an inverted verb form sentence that would be better discussed in that lesson. It could do with clarification of the reason also - it reads more like a single exception for 'la monnaie', rather than that 'faire avoir' is not a compound verb expression used in French.
I think I understand what your query is.
Aurélie used 'Fais tu avoir de la monnaie?' for, 'Do you have any change?' as a literal translation a student might attempt to say translating literally from English into French. Believe us, that is possible and I have heard plenty over the years!
In French, it is non-sensical as 'faire avoir' doesn't exist.
I think it was just to illustrate a pitfall.
Hope this helps
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