Avoir. Porquoi ne c'est par le verbe avoir in the infinitive aprés the mot 'aprés?

SusanB1Kwiziq community member

Avoir. Porquoi ne c'est par le verbe avoir in the infinitive aprés the mot 'aprés?

Asked 3 years ago
PaulC1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor Correct answer

Not totally sure I understand your question but here goes! In French, the way to say "after doing something ..." is "après avoir fait quelque chose ..." when the subject of both actions is the same, so in this case "after having tried in vain to unlock the car ... I called a taxi" translates as "après avoir en vain essayé d'ouvrir la voiture ... j'ai appelé un taxi" because in this case both actions are being done by ME. But later in the exercise the subject in the "after" sentence is different - "after HE pushed me from the taxi, it was ME that succeeded in staggering to the door" so that's why no "avoir" in that case (if that is your question) and it is simply "Après qu'il m'a poussé ... j'ai réussi ..."

ChrisC1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

If you post the sentence in question, I can try to help you. Without it I would have to go hunting through the entire writing exercise myself. And that's something I'm not likely to do on a Monday morning.

Avoir. Porquoi ne c'est par le verbe avoir in the infinitive aprés the mot 'aprés?

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