Why isn’t it chère when describing the cost of the PlayStation which is feminine?
Dictation exercise A2
The only reason I can think of is that the adjective cher does not refer the word PlayStation but may be used like this:
La jupe est chère. -- The skirt is expensive (here it's an adjective and corresponds to la jupe).La jupe coûte cher. -- The skirt "costs expensive" (doesn't work in English, though).
In the second sentence cher will always be in the neutral masculine form, regardless of the gender of the noun.
I wonder if it’s related to this lesson, but extended to also apply to “after ça”? Not sure though. Standalone adjectives after c'est are always masculine%252Fsearch%253Fs%253DAlways%252Bmasculine%252Bafter%252Bc%2525E2%252580%252599est
Christine, when "cher" is an adjective ("chère Martine", "elle est chère, cette voiture!"), the adjective changes depending on the gender of the noun. This is the case with verbs called "d'état" (être, sembler, devenir, avoir l'air, paraitre).
When "cher" is after another verb, it is an adverb, and like any adverb in French, it does not change : "elle coûte cher, cette voiture!". I know, it's a bit tricky...
And Brian, no, "ça" does not follow the same rule: "ça" and "c'" come from "cela", a neutral form, meaning "this". This is why it will always be followed by a masculine ("cela/c' est gentil", "ça semble cher", "ça parait évident"...).
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