Fait invariable in past, reflexive causative constructions ?

Question

In "le causatif", consider the sentences :

Eva s'est fait laver les cheveux par sa soeur ;

Ils se sont fait piquer par des guêpes.

I know fait is invariable here, but I don't understand why it is, and not faite or faits (or faites)

Thanks
/DO

Céline Pickard · Accepted Answer

Bonjour David,
That's a very interesting question! Take a look at the link below where Cécile explains it all:
Fais faire
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée !

Céline Pickard · Answer

Bonjour Anne,
Cécile explains at the end of her answer that:
*The past participle of faire is invariable when followed by an infinitive even when using the reflexive 'se faire'.
In the examples from your query, "se faire" is not followed by an infinitive. Therefore, as Cécile explained, "fait" will agree with the gender of the subject.
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée !

Anne Davies · Answer

Apologies if this is a side issue (though related) but I can’t get my head around Cécile’s examples of using "se faire" (as opposed to se faire faire) in that link - in both sample sentences there’s a direct object and the "me" looks like an indirect reflexive pronoun so why do the past participles accord with the subjects?

Je me suis fait/e une bonne soupe au potiron hier soir = I made myself a lovely pumpkin soup last night

Je me suis faite une belle robe = I made myself a beautiful dress

Anne Davies · Answer

Thanks for replying, Céline but the fact that "fait" is invariable in "je me suis fait + infinitive", doesn’t logically mean it’s got to vary in the non causative construction. In the examples, "I" am not the direct object of faire: rather, I’m making soup for myself or making a dress for myself. Isn’t it similar to "elle s’est coupé les cheveux"?

David OLIVER · Answer

Thank you Céline for the link to "fais faire" - nice explanation.