Most often in the use of pqp, one action precedes another. Sometimes the action the plus-que-parfait precedes will not be explicit, but will be implied in the sentence:
Je m'étais trompé de date cette fois-là.I'd got the date wrong that time.Vous vous étiez amusés cette nuit-là?Had you had fun that night?Both these examples, weakly imply, that you were mistaken and had fun in a prior time. I find this difficult to think I would be able to discern the need for the pqp in constructing a sentence. Can you please explain this more in depth? Thank you, Ken
I see your point but as it is exactly the same in English I can only assume that it is because of the use of that night and that time ( as opposed to this night and this time) but others input welcome.
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