This test question required the correct definition: 'Elle aura pu finir son travail' and I put 'She will have been able to finish her work'. But the correct answer is 'She will be able to finish her work'. I'm a bit confused (as ever) because above is an example - 'Tu auras pu chanter sur scène' which translates as 'You will have been able to sing on stage'. So is it will have been or will be able? Help!
The correct answer is 'She will have been able to finish her work'. I've just tried the question myself, and it was marked correct. I think you must have accidentally chosen the other answer. Sometimes when that happens you can get confused about which is the correct answer.
I think you're absolutely right: Elle aura pu...is futur antérieur. The English rendition is: She will have been able...
But note: there isn't always a 1:1 correspondence between times in English and French. Sometimes it's better either stylistically or grammatically to use a different time.
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