Is it a fair assumption that all monosyllabic adjectives ending in “er” are pronounced the same when converted to the feminine “ère” ending? “Cher”and “chère”, for example? Whereas multi syllable “er” adjectives must change pronunciation in the feminine? “Dernier” versus “dernière”?
I always assumed that the accent grave was added to certain words to change the stress and pronunciation. If so, why is the accent grave added to words like “Cher” in the feminine if the pronunciation does not change?
Does this question make sense?
Thank you!