Why do you say mangées and not mangé, since it's "Anne a mangé"?
Thanks in advance:)
Manger is a transitive verb and les pommes are the direct object, pommes being grammatically feminine.
So we have the direct object pronoun les (representing les pommes) appearing before the verb manger and this requires the past participle of manger to agree with the direct object pronoun (les) therefore past participle plural feminine "mangées"
Jim's explanation is great! To supplement his answer, here's a link on this topic:
Special cases when the past participle agrees (in number & gender) when used with 'avoir' in the compound past in French (Le Passé Composé)
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée !
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