In this sentence, "Cette-fois-là, je retins ma joie jusqu'à ce que je fus sûr", they did not use the subjunctive after jusqu'à ce que. Just wondering why...
Where did you find this sentence?
I am asking because we think there is a mistake and that it should be -
"....je retins ma joie jusqu'à ce que je fusse sûr"
'fusse' being the subjunctive imperfect which is rarely employed and somewhat archaic nowadays but that you can still find sometimes in literature...
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