Why is it "il m'avait même donnée" when there is not a direct feminine object of the verb donner in front of it?
Question around accordance of past participle and avoir
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Viviene O.Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Question around accordance of past participle and avoir
Asked 4 years ago
Gabrielle F.Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
In this case, I believe that it is because there is agreement with the direct object pronoun when using passé composé, and the "me" (m'avait) is female, per the voice-over.
Viviene O.Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Yes, I agree that m' refers to female but she is an indirect object of verb donner: il avait donnée .... à elle (I know that is bad grammar in French but it is just to show that the m' is an indirect as opposed to direct object)
Tom A. Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
I agree with Viviene: 'm' is an indirect object, so it should just be 'donné'.
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