Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

Mariano M.C1Kwiziq community member

Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

I thought you always used the "ne + subjonctif" construction after "avant que"

This question relates to:French lesson "Conjugate verbs in the subjunctive past in French (Le Subjonctif Passé)"

Asked 4 years ago

Like1Answer2

CécileNative French expert teacher in KwiziqCorrect answer

Hi Mariano,

You are correct in that the 'ne explétif' should be used in written form after avant que so we have corrected this particular example.

Thank you for pointing it out!

Like04 years ago

Chris W.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

In spoken French you'll often hear avent que without the ne explétif. So much so, that I almost get the impression it is becoming optional. I'm sure, however, that the Académie Française would disagree with that.

Like04 years ago

Mariano M. asked:View original

Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

I thought you always used the "ne + subjonctif" construction after "avant que"

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