Why use Mangez-y ! then Manges-y !?
I don't see when they implied the use of Vous or Tu in the sentences? Please explain. Thanks
Thanks for your answer, but actually there is a note in the lesson to say that you add the -s for pronunciation purposes.
If you try to say
Mange -y! you will see the problem.
Heba, the imperative has 3 forms :
tu, vous, nous
Manges-y! = Eat there! ( familiar ‘tu’)
Mangez-y! =Eat there! (Respectful ‘vous’)
Mangeons-y! = Let’s eat there!
Hope this helps!
The sentence under question in the lesson is:
Mange dans ce restaurant ! Manges-y !(Note: I think this is a typo and it should be mange-y. Cécile?)
The first part uses the familiar tu form (mange instead of mangez), so it stands to reason that the second part would also use it. What I don't understand, though, is that the imperative of manger ought to be mange (without the final -s). Is this a typo?
Thanks Cécile. Now, how would you explain the following:
Va au diable! (no -s, even though the next word starts with a vowel)Vas-y! (with -s, because the next word sounds like a vowel)And in mange, the last sound is not a vowel, so mange-y would sound like "monshee". Would you pronounce manges-y as "monshesee" or also as "manshee"?
Yes indeed !
Although aller , even though it is irregular verb ending in ER follows the same rule in the imperative as manger which is regular as indicated in the following Kwiziq lesson -
Va au lit! = Go to bed!
For euphony you add the -s again to say
so it's not different from
Manges-y ---> Man- ge- zi
Mangez-y ----> Man- gé- zi
I would say with 3 syllables.
Hope this hleps!
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