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14,675 questions • 31,818 answers • 965,165 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,675 questions • 31,818 answers • 965,165 learners
Why is it sometimes before the noun and sometimes after when used as an adjective? And I see some patterns in it's placement as an adverb but if you have any advice on that as well that would be great.
Jean-Jacques Goldman et Céline Dion!! J'adore cette chanson.
"On me dit qu'aujourd'hui, on me dit que les autres font ainsi..je ne suis pas les autres..non....non"
The rule concerning agreement of "tout" in different situations confuses me. Why isn't it written "toute à l'heure" so that tout agrees with the gender of l'heure? Thanks.
I found this explanation in Le Figaro but it does not explain why there is no agreement: https://www.lefigaro.fr/langue-francaise/expressions-francaises/2019/01/23/37003-20190123ARTFIG00047--toute-a-l-heure-ne-faites-plus-la-faute.php
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