French language Q&A Forum

In a C1 test the correct answer was shown as:

Je prends mon petit-déjeuner après que tu t'es levé, with the hint being:

I have my breakfast after you get up.

Why isn't the correct answer:

Je prends mon petit-déjeuner après que tu te leves.

What am I missing?

why does 'and I took the opportunity to visit the Gustave Moreau museum'   answer

Kwizbot et j'en ai profité pour visiter le musée Gustave Moreau.

I don't understand!!! Help!!

Why is the letter "l" of the verb s'appeler doubled in all persons but the first and second plural?

'Elles rentrent après le bus les a déposées' is this wrong because le bus is the subject of the subordinate clause? Bearing in mind this: https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/apres-vs-derriere/ which suggests native speakers do whatever they can to avoid apres que?

I have an older Collins dictionary which uses the French word, poste, for shift in this context.  There are several other suggestions but the word, garde, is not even mentioned.  Should I get a new dictionary? 

I'm wondering if in the lesson on d'ici.... the English translation might be "between now and such and such a date or time" and that d'ici be explicitly contrasted with "dans", which of course refers to a specific time when such and such will be done rather than a span of time within which it will be done. Just a thought. It was not until I came up with this idea that I began to understand "d'ici..."

In this question

shouldn't be replaced by ? I thought was a used to introduce an itinerary, as in

In the lesson you state:

English is my native language and I would never say "neither one nor the other". I would say "Neither the one nor the other" or better, as offered "Neither." "Neither one nor the other" just doesn't sound right. "Neither one" seems sufficient (and a third alternative) making the addition of "nor the other" seem superfluous and inappropriate. I wonder if this isn't a dialectical difference within North America.