French language Q&A Forum

My question has to do with the use of the hyphen. Am I correct in assuming that when the pronoun comes after the verb a hyphen must be added?

For vecu, why isn't there a cedille under the "c"? Recu uses a cedille and I thought that CU combinatioin made it a hard c. I don't expect an answer, but at least I tried.

It was just to say that i’ve never seen cotton buds marketed as “les cotons-tiges” in South West France, where I live, but as “les bâtonnets ouatés”

Une maison  à vendre.  

des travaux à faire,

Salut tout le monde,

Toutes ces questions concernant les nationalités sont ambiguës.  Une femme peut dire toue les deux:

Je suis française ou Je suis Française. Ça dépend du contexte. Française est un nom et sa nationalité.  « française » est un adjectif et elle décrit qu’elle est de la

Why was this sentence "In Gallardon,public transport was very limited" translated in French as if the noun in question was plural?

In the explannation above, it says:

"To express lacking [something], you will use manquer de or d' + [thing].

You do not need to use the partitive articles (du, de l', de la, des) here, just as you wouldn't say I lack thesugar but simply I lack sugar:"

It's a bit confusing because then all the examples use "de". You really have to your know your grammatical terms! I wonder if it would be clearer to say:

"You do not need to use the definite articles (le, l', la, les) here".

Just a thought.

I think it is very discouraging and disappointing for those who click on the first reading or listening exercise of A1 level, and then they see this passage.

The question:

Nous sommes partis _________ au cas où.

We left early  just in case.

I answered: "en avance juste"

....and was marked incorrect for adding the "juste".

Could someone please explain why my answer was wrong?