Hi,
in one of the questions I was asked to conjugate épeler. I answered with épèle but apparently both épelle and épèle are correct. My partner is French and she didn't know why this is the case. Can someone explain why this verb follows the rules for both kinds of "-ELER" verbs?Thanks!
Ryan
Bonjour Ryan,
Chris's advice is great! The 1990 Spelling Reform is why these particular verbs do have two spellings: "Note the spelling reform of 1990 accepts either the use of the accent è or the doubled consonant for these verbs (for example je chancelle / je chancèle). However, this does not apply to appeler, jeter and their derivatives"
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée !
Hi Ryan,
According to my Bescherelle "l or t is doubled before a mute e". Then it goes on to say
"A few verbs, however, instead of doubling the l or t take a grave accent on the e"
It gives a typical list of those verbs following this "rule" but doesn't actually mention épeler as one of them. That doesn't exclude that verb of course.
Maybe others can add to my input?
Hope it helps.
Jim
There are several verbs which can go with either of two conjugation forms. Just pick one and stick with it.
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