I don't understand why...

I don't understand why...

you used in the first explanation of the PQP " e.g. had had.." and yet in all your examples you used only "had" but then in the test you used "had had" as the correct answer x 2. In other tests I have noted that we do not literally take the exact translation but the appropriate translation but this one has me fooled.  What is the point of having all the examples "had" and the test "had had"?
Asked 1 year ago
GruffKwiziq language super star

Hi Pamela, all of the examples are in the pluperfect in English as well. 

Remember that "We had had" is usually contracted in speech to "We'd had" (and this is not the same tense as "We had").

It's very easy to miss the 'd but the apostrophe represents the 'ha' in 'had' that has been squished up (or 'elided', if we want to be technical).

So:
Si elle avait dû le faire...

If she'd  had to do it, or 

If she had had to do it,

They're equivalent.

Hope that helps!

Thank you. I see what I missed. 

I don't understand why...

you used in the first explanation of the PQP " e.g. had had.." and yet in all your examples you used only "had" but then in the test you used "had had" as the correct answer x 2. In other tests I have noted that we do not literally take the exact translation but the appropriate translation but this one has me fooled.  What is the point of having all the examples "had" and the test "had had"?

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