Passer with être and avoirIn one of the writing challenges, the sentence "As soon as we passed the door," is translated into French as:
Aussitôt que nous avons passé la porte,
In reviewing the grammar topic "Passer can be used with avoir or être in Le Passé Composé... and changes meaning," however, I'm having trouble understanding the usage here. The grammar page says that "passer" is used with être for:
pass by <somewhere>, go past <something/somewhere>, stop by <somewhere>, pop by <somewhere>
In this case, it seems the sentence is "passing by (somewhere)" or "going past (somewhere)"
For avoir, the examples are = spend <some time>, take <a test or exam> , and pass <something> (to someone), none of which seem to match this sentence.
Can someone please explain why using "avoir" instead of "être" is considered correct in this case?
Thank you!
Is there only one correct choice for each sitaution or might different speakers view the situation differently and make different choices?
I find that I often get this sort of exercises wrong (for example in the "Un ville magique" test where I got 13/15 on my first attempt) but on looking again at the text and rereading the lessons I cannot convince myself that the alternative choice was better.
For example:
1. "L'endroit qui m'a enchanté au-dessus de tout, c'était le chateau de l'imperatrice Sissi". I had wrongly answered "m'enchantait" since Magalie being enchanted seems to me to be an ongoing state, not having a beginning and end.
2. "Je ne voulait pas plus repartir". I had wrongly answered "n'ai plus voulu" since the state of not wanting to leave would have ended when she actually did leave.
In one of the writing challenges, the sentence "As soon as we passed the door," is translated into French as:
Aussitôt que nous avons passé la porte,
In reviewing the grammar topic "Passer can be used with avoir or être in Le Passé Composé... and changes meaning," however, I'm having trouble understanding the usage here. The grammar page says that "passer" is used with être for:
pass by <somewhere>, go past <something/somewhere>, stop by <somewhere>, pop by <somewhere>
In this case, it seems the sentence is "passing by (somewhere)" or "going past (somewhere)"
For avoir, the examples are = spend <some time>, take <a test or exam> , and pass <something> (to someone), none of which seem to match this sentence.
Can someone please explain why using "avoir" instead of "être" is considered correct in this case?
Thank you!
In the passive the correct answer is given as 'une antilope sera chassée par un lion'.
As chasser is an -er verb that I guess takes avoir why isn't the answer 'une antilope aura chassé par un lion'?
Which of these two is correct, or are both correct. I expected that #2 is correct but it seems the Kwiziq writing challenges expect only #1. I can see both in use elsewhere on the web but I only understand the reasoning behind #2.
1. " Le vent lui fouettait le visage"
2. " Le vent fouettait son visage"
Isn't le/son visage the direct object?
Isn't the use of lui implying that there is an indirect object?
But fouetter does not use indirect objects, does it?
Are we supposed to look at this as:
Subject: The wind
Verb: whips
Direct object: the face
Indirect object: (of) him
But why? There is no "à" in this sentence "Le vent fouettait le visage de Marcel", only a "de".
The phrase "It was the first time she'd gone camping on her own,"is translated as any of:
1. "C'était la première fois qu'elle allait camper seule, "
2. "C'était la première fois qu'elle allait camper toute seule,"3. "C'était la première fois qu'elle allait faire du camping seule, "4. "C'était la première fois qu'elle allait faire du camping toute seule"Questions:
1. According to Kwiziq's "Vocabulaire - Le camping", "faire du camping" means "go camping" so using it with "aller" seems superfluous if not actually incorrect. Shouldn't translations 3 and 4 be more like "...faisait du camping..."?2. To translate "she'd gone camping" (i.e. "she had gone camping") differently from "she went camping" shouldn't the translation use the Plus-que-parfait - not the Imparfait? Why do all of the translations use the Imparfait?3. Why is "toute" used in translations 2 and 4? As I understand it "toute" is used for emphasis here but if the English phrase had wanted emphasis it could have used something like "all on her own" or "on her very own".
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