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Melody S.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Can I ask you another thing ? vs. test Q: Can I ask you something else ? (Puis-je vous demander autre chose ? ) Re: the question, as stated, it's hard to imagine a situation where someone (A) wouldn't have already asked the person (B) one or more questions. Okay- a stretch: the person (B) says- "So you want to ask me about a,b,c." The questioner (A) says- "(No) can I ask you something else (instead)?" In English, "Can I ask you something else?" = yet another question, not a different question. Thus, "Can I ask you another thing ?" So, "Puis-je vous demander une autre chose ?" I'm confused, obviously! ;) Melody

Asked 9 years ago

yellamaraju s.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Nous le savons depuis que vous nous l'avez ditWe've known since you told us. Is it correct to say "We've know it since you told us."

Asked 9 years ago

AurélieKwiziq Head of French, Native French Teacher

Christopher asked: "Why "J. a descendu le géant." can't mean "J. climbed down on the giant" ?"

Asked 9 years ago

Chris W.C1Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

What am I missing???"The day before, I had written him a letter." Now, of course I can translate this safely as "La veille, ...". However, why not as "Le jour précédant,..."? After all, it stands on its own, or doesn't it? -- Chris.

Asked 9 years ago

Barbara M.B2Kwiziq community member

How to use accents in answers

Asked 9 years ago

Susan R.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

The concept is elusive: in the future, you will have done something in the past?Maybe you could describe a situation to which this would apply? I recall the play, "La guerre de Troies n'aura pas lieu," but that was a triumph of imagination. When would you work this into everyday conversation?

Asked 9 years ago

Melvin P.A2Kwiziq community member

Bonjour, Aurélie. I have a question. Why is it "tu as minci depuis l'année dernière" and not "tu mincis.."? In another lesson, it says that when using depuis the must be in the present tense. Merci beaucoup pour vos leçons. ^^

Asked 9 years ago

Chris W.C1Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Would this be a correct parallel to GermanIs there anyone speaking German here? Because I couldn't get my head around the explanation given in this lesson. It just seems very difficult to explain to a native English speaker. However, I get the impression that "attendre" would translate to "warten" in German whereas "s'attendre à" corresponds to "erwarten". The former simply is a statement while the latter is putting the focus more on what you're waiting for. -- Chris.

Asked 9 years ago

Robyn C.B1Kwiziq community member

So a compound colour always reverts to the masculine form?

Asked 9 years ago

Chris W.C1Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

I think the answer is wrong...Should the translaten of "Don't go to bed yet" not be "Ne vous couchez pas encore" instead of only "Ne vous couchez pas" ? Methinks the "yet" isn't captured by the second translation. -- Chris.

Asked 9 years ago

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