French language Q&A Forum

Bonjour,

I found very interesting sentence causing me a headache.... "Il n'en est venu aucun".

According to lessons, the sentence is negated by placing the two parts of the negation on each side of the auxiliary verb (avoir or être) in a compound sentence like the passé..

However, as you can see in this sentence,  one part of negation, "aucun" is located at the end of sentence. And I found this sentence from a dictionary and so there must be no grammer problem...

I've been searching and googling for hours but did not get any to understand the sentence...So, May I ask someone to kindly explain this please?

Thank you so much in advance!

I need a class on passé compose and l'imparfait 

Can u arrange it svp

I’m not sure here why souhaite ends with an ‘e’ when it’s prefixed by a vous? Is it irregular? 

Is it always the case that one uses the present tense after depuis que rather than the imperfect and passé composé as in " Since I was small, I travelled a great deal"?

I am confused about an answer.  The sentence 'Tu n'as pas habité ici depuis long temps' was marked incorrect and ´Tu n'habites pas ici depuis long temps' given as the correct answer. But in the corresponding lesson we are told that in an affirmative sentence with 'depuis' you use present tense but if it is a negative sentence, you use passé composé.  Where am I going wrong?

The corrections give the options of both subjunctive and indicative conjugation following the verb "esperer". Can you clarify? Thanks

I know that the translation is often literal, but would the following be a correct ways of writing "without me being made aware of it!" - sans avoir m'avertir (in place of sans que j'en sois informé. The latter seems cumbersome.

Also can one use "Encore une fois" in place of "Une fois de plus"?

Thanks

In the passage we have both

'du fait qu'il est le seul'

and

'le fait qu'il n'y ait pas de jeu'

and I wonder why one is indicative and one subjunctive?