French language Q&A Forum

I echo the comments below regarding this lesson lacking clarity. 

The explanation of when it IS appropriate to use 'devoir' is missing and I find it easier to just memorise the correct answers rather than try to answer them using knowledge of the grammar rules.

"De" and "des" has puzzled me for years.  I interpret this as "dolphin show" or "show of dolphins" which would be the grammatical equivalent of "la mère de Paul."  But, the right answer is "des."  That would seem to be "I would like to see the show some dolphins" in my mind.  Can somebody help me with the grammar that applies here?

Can I use "la fillette" instead of "la petite fille"?

 Is there a difference between

"Je me réveille à sept heures du matin tous les jours"

and

"Je me réveille tous les jours à sept heures du matin" ?

In a quiz I just took, 'brilliant ' becomes 'brillamment'. Is this an irregular adverb? I note that 'patient' becomes "patiemment". I would appreciate your insight. 

Bonjour Madame Cécile !

A sentence came up while I was reviewing the lesson-

Il a déjà acheté un nouvel appartement.             

To form the negative, I think it should be-

Il n’a pas encore acheté de nouvel appartement. 

I had read the rule in the following lesson that “un” changes to “de” in negative sentences-

Un/une become de/d' in negative sentences in French (French Indefinite Articles)

But, will “un” change to “de” in this negation ? Because, there is an adjective after “un” ?

Is this an exceptional case where the above mentioned rule does not apply as it happens for “Verbs of State” ?

Merci en avance ! Je vous souhaite une bonne journée! 

À bientôt !

Oh la la! In the last phrase of this dictée, "Ils ont eu le droit de manger," it's hard to understand "ont eu." 

Was the speaker's mouth full of chocolate eggs? ;) 

But seriously, a liaison between "ont_eu" would've made it clearer. Nonetheless, it does seem rather "frenchy" that liaison's aren't necessarily obligatory, but rather subjective, yeah???

In the example,  why is 'you would have been in trouble given as vous auriez eu des problems'? I would have expected 'vous auriez été .....'  What am I missing?

Why is this not translated as "she was wearing . . ." which would be consistent with the description of imparfait from the specific grammar lessons on Imperfect being equivalent to English use of 'was . . ' or 'was ..ing'.  It seems to me that 'she wore . . ' would be more consistent with passé compose (Elle a porté . . .)?  Noting further that for 'I bought . . . ' the origin of the translation was passé composé - 'J'ai acheté ...' in the same set of examples above.

I agree with others that this lesson is very confusing. There’s no explanation as to why jeter and appeler are different from the other eTer and eLer verbs discussed in the section above them (lever, acheter). I think this has to do with how the present tense is spelled, but some more explicit explanation would be helpful. Further, the very top section (I realize I’m moving from bottom to top) gives accent rules for ALL eXer verbs, so what comes below is confusing because it appears there are exceptions and we’re not told why. Thanks for any help in clarifying this.