Oleg asked: "Shouldn't it be "Il les a tous lu" instead of "Il les a tous lus"? If not, why?"
Aurélie
Kwiziq language super star
10/11/16
Bonjour Oleg !
"Il les a tous luS" is actually correct, because it follows a (very annoying!) rule of agreement with the auxiliary "avoir".
You will agree the past participle with the direct object of the verb IF this one is placed BEFORE the verb... which happens when using direct object pronouns as in here.
Here is a link to the related lesson:
https://progress.lawlessfrench.com/my-languages/french/view/429
I hope that's helpful!
À bientôt !
"Il les a tous luS" is actually correct, because it follows a (very annoying!) rule of agreement with the auxiliary "avoir".
You will agree the past participle with the direct object of the verb IF this one is placed BEFORE the verb... which happens when using direct object pronouns as in here.
Here is a link to the related lesson:
https://progress.lawlessfrench.com/my-languages/french/view/429
I hope that's helpful!
À bientôt !
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Aurélie
Kwiziq language super star
10 November 2016
1 reply
Oleg asked: "Shouldn't it be "Il les a tous lu" instead of "Il les a tous lus"? If not, why?"
This relates to:
Tout, tous, toute, toutes = Everything, all (of them), the whole -