French language Q&A Forum

Pourquoi de est utilise en cet phrase, Nous n'avons plus de pain au moins du depuis pain est masculin

Is the pronunciation of the 's' optional in tandis que?

Title. Trying to figure out if you must have the "ce" or if there are situations where it is not present. 

In the third paragraph beginning, "Dans les décennies qui suivent", the expression "autres" appears without a "d'" or a "des" preceeding it. According to the PwLF lesson, that's incorrect.

I was thinking it would be "de" instead of des since the adjective is before the noun.  What am I missing?  Thank you.

I wrote "faire du ski." I think this is form give elsewhere on Lawless French.  Here the correct answer is given as "faire de ski."   Which is correct?

Pourquoi "Ayons de la foi" n'est pas correct, et on dois dire "Ayons la foi"?

The English translation "I'm washing after you got up" is grammatically incorrect. You're essentially saying "I'm doing this after you did that", which makes no sense in English. The proper structure would be "I'm washing after you get up" (I'm doing this after you do that") or "I'm washing after you have gotten up" ("I'm doing this after you have done that").

This is one of the most frustrating things in studying any language, when you see a direct translation given that you know is grammatically incorrect (even if it is understandable by somebody who's fluent in the language that the sentence is being translated into) instead of a transliteration that makes more sense.

The lesson doesn't say if it's okay to replace the pronouns un & autre with subject nouns. E.g  for: 'Neither Julien nor Sophie can come.' can you say 1) 'Ni Julien ni Sophie ne peuvent venir.' ? or do you have to say 2)'Julien et Sophie ne peuvent venir, ni l'un ni l'autre'  or how about 3) 'Ils ne peuvent venir, ni Julien ni Sophie.' ? Or are all three okay?