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14,815 questions • 32,092 answers • 986,878 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,815 questions • 32,092 answers • 986,878 learners
The question asked for the correct version translated with despite not in spite but this is still labeled correct. I'm confused.
Pour moi, question 8, on the 8th February 2023, Nous ne voyons personne» means : ....I put 'we never see anyone' which you have said is incorrect. In english We don't (do not) see anyone, can also mean 'we are particular who we see'. Is this the same in french for Nous ne voyons personne, if so why is it not clarified?
Can someone at least point me to a detailed explanation of when to use Tu. I am 74 and I have assumed nobody will tutoyer me automatically. I would prefer not to tutoyer someone else merely for some hierarchical reason, so I am focusing on the vous form (as does Pimsleur, which I am also using). But, if I go to a French Meet Up in America, will everyone be using Tu? And what about visiting Guadeloupe?
According to https://www.lawlessfrench.com/subjunctivisor/considerer/ this should not be subjunctive. (Strictly speaking)
I am presuming the use of subjunctive here is that the speaker is willing to allow some doubt into her suggestion ? I.e. that She accepts her opinion may not be correct, or that the point is debatable ?
Paul.
-> Please ignore this question, I can't delete it now, I think it's actually "le meilleur roman qui" which means the subjunctive is used in this context. Does that sound like the correct answer ?
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Why in the above translation has the word 'gotten' been used? Although acceptable in USA + Canada, it is regarded as bad grammar in the UK? I had got....... ought to be the translation.
I understand the lesson as it is taught above.
In the lesson for future antérieur (Conjugate vouloir/pouvoir/devoir in the future perfect in French (Le Futur Antérieur)) there are sentences like "Nous aurons voulu le revoir". Why not Nous le aurons voulu revoir?
Is there another rule applicable when using future antérieur?
When conjugated in L'Imparfait (Indicatif), devoir refers to a past obligation, without specifying whether it was met or not.
Actually, in most cases, the obligation was not met.
The first example in the above lesson definately specifies that they didn't come when supposed to. How is that complying with this rule "without specifying whether it was met or not"
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