use of diff prepositions and meaning intended by "colloquially"—from lesson
To express in those days in French, you won't colloquially use ces jours-là, but rather à cette époque-là or en ce temps-là.
À cette époque-là, les femmes n'avaient pas le droit de vote.
In those days, women didn't have the right to vote.
—
In the first sentence, which I copy from the lesson, what is “colloquially” meant to convey? That “ces jours-là” is wrong but it’s used anyway? Or?
When a preposition is used, are there particular rules for using à vs. en vs. dans? Would “en cette époque-là” be incorrect? Likewise for “en ce temps-là” ? Or “dans ce temps-là”?
I came across this sentence recently:
Dans ce temps-là, ajoute Gaétan, il n’y avait pas de lampe électrique. Juste des bougies. Brrrrrr !
It is from Le trésor du vieux moulin p. 101.
https://beq.ebooksgratuits.com/contemporain/Boucher-moulin.pdf
Hence, my questions. THX
Why in the above translation has the word 'gotten' been used? Although acceptable in USA + Canada, it is regarded as bad grammar in the UK? I had got....... ought to be the translation.
I understand the lesson as it is taught above.
In the lesson for future antérieur (Conjugate vouloir/pouvoir/devoir in the future perfect in French (Le Futur Antérieur)) there are sentences like "Nous aurons voulu le revoir". Why not Nous le aurons voulu revoir?
Is there another rule applicable when using future antérieur?
When conjugated in L'Imparfait (Indicatif), devoir refers to a past obligation, without specifying whether it was met or not.
Actually, in most cases, the obligation was not met.
The first example in the above lesson definately specifies that they didn't come when supposed to. How is that complying with this rule "without specifying whether it was met or not"
While I did use "elle est aussi restée avec moi dimanche" could you use "elle m'est aussi restée dimanche" ?
I'm wondering why the verb tense here doesn't match the English sentence that was given : "We **had wanted** you so much for so long... ".
The answer given is "n'y connaît rien." Seems to me this should be "n'y savait rien." This refers to knowing how to navigate a lock. Knowing how is savoir.
—from lesson
To express in those days in French, you won't colloquially use ces jours-là, but rather à cette époque-là or en ce temps-là.
À cette époque-là, les femmes n'avaient pas le droit de vote.
In those days, women didn't have the right to vote.
—
In the first sentence, which I copy from the lesson, what is “colloquially” meant to convey? That “ces jours-là” is wrong but it’s used anyway? Or?
When a preposition is used, are there particular rules for using à vs. en vs. dans? Would “en cette époque-là” be incorrect? Likewise for “en ce temps-là” ? Or “dans ce temps-là”?
I came across this sentence recently:
Dans ce temps-là, ajoute Gaétan, il n’y avait pas de lampe électrique. Juste des bougies. Brrrrrr !
It is from Le trésor du vieux moulin p. 101.
https://beq.ebooksgratuits.com/contemporain/Boucher-moulin.pdf
Hence, my questions. THX
In the third line of the dialog, if using inversion "Savez-vous à quelle heure nous atterrissons?", the audio in the exercise has several extra words that do not match the text. I can't remember exactly what they were but at the beginning it says "Pascal", like there were cues for the dialog that were being read as the dialog.
what are the french 3 componets of the near future
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