French language Q&A Forum

Why is the "il lui coupait" in imparfait and not passé composé? It interprets the first actions (aunt speaking), so I thought it should be passé composé.

Why "fin janvier" but not "a la fin de janvier"

I'm not sure why but in this lesson, the examples I see are all in English. There is no French translation. Anyone else had this problem? I have seen it once or twice before.

Why is there a le in the dependent clause that begins with bien que

Je ne participe plus aux compétitions.

Je ne fais plus de compétitions

on est perdus..... why plural ? on can take the place of nous ... is that the reason ?

I think a better translation for: "Je tins la robe avant d'aller à la soirée." is , "I wore the dress before going to the soiré"  the "correct" translation, "I held the dress before going to the soiré" makes little sense, the response could only be, "Oh?".

To say - "The thief is in prison for 2 years." ....are all of the below correct/acceptable ? Is 'Depuis' more preferable with present tense/ present durations and no. 2) 'Pour' is incorrect? because Pour is used with future tense/ future durations only as per this lesson?? Please clarify.

1. Le voleur est en prison depuis 2 ans. 

2. Le voleur est en prison pour 2 ans. 

3. Le voleur est en prison pendant/durant 2 ans. (also acceptable bcoz action is within a specific timeframe, as per this lesson?)

So, out of the above no. 1)- 'Depuis' is the most preferable way to say it because we are using present tense (and the action is still ongoing)?? And 'Pour' is not correct because it is strictly for future durations as per this lesson?