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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,815 questions • 32,108 answers • 987,708 learners
The answer to the question is Je partirais si j'avais une voiture.
However, my question is about "j'avais une voiture." Why is it j'avais (imparfait) and not j'ai une voiture, considering that its in the present? Is this related to the subjunctif? Cause I have a feeling this has to do with the subjunctif :D
The two words are the same to me, would someone explain their difference?
It seems that while it's technically correct to use indicative with "apres que", most people in France use the subjunctive in daily practice, and actually find it weird if you use the indicative. The practice is so common that it is becoming a defacto standard (e.g see https://www.francaisavecpierre.com/apres-que-subjonctif-ou-indicatif/). As I know Lawless is a strict grammarian, I will use the indicative and correct French speakers when they use the subjunctive (I also guess that I will soon be thrown out of France by a horde of angry French people :-) )
Hi, I have a very similar question... with this example from the quiz...
Tu ________ me piéger mais ça n'a pas marché !
You wanted to trick me but it didn't work!HINT: Conjugate vouloir in Le Passé Composé (conversational past)I think I understand that the 'wanted' with vouloir is a one time 'wanting'...is that why we are using the passé composé? In my mind, I think of wanting as an undetermined amount of time as I don´t see a trigger for something specific. Could you help me understand this better? Perhaps I am still thinking in Spanish more than in French? Thanks so much!Find your French level for FREE
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