French language Q&A Forum

In order to say, "i prefer our houses to theirs" is it acceptable to say, "Je préfère nos maisons à les leurs ." ?

As an aside, I found it so easy to add accents in this new format. It is a super improvement indeed! 

Why is the answer not: Georges cherche pour son neuf stylo? 

There is no suggestion that the new pen has been used before. If it had, it would be (masc/sing) nouveau - the answer given as correct.

Can you please explain why the answer is nouveau.

« que je me souvienne... »

Il est évident que le verbe est au subjonctif, mais pour quelle raison ? Je ne le comprends pas.

Quelqu'un peut m'aider ?

So a sentence like "My friends came and they were all happy," can be translated in two different ways?

Mes amis sont venus et tous étaient contents.

Mes amis sont venus et ils étaient tous contents.

Is this then just a stylistic difference, or do these differ semantically as well? 

I still don't understand whey, "Qu'est-ce que le fois gras," Is not an acceptable way of saying "What is?" QUE (what) est-ce (is it) le fois gras.

Why is it any less acceptable than "Qu'est-ce que c'est que" The explanations just don't make sense to me. Could you clarify?

Bonjour Kwiziq Experts !

A rule from the lesson states- 

Adverbial pronouns en/y are placed after moi/toi/lui/nous/vous/leur  and moi/toi become m' and t’

Can it be elaborated by using the following- en/ y are placed after moi/toi/lui/l’/nous/vous/leur/les.

Accompagne-l’y ! -> Accompany him there ! (Here, l’ is a direct object which is better as compared to lui)

Conduis-les-y ! -> Drive them there ! (Here too, les is a direct object used instead of leur)

Just curious to know whether direct object too satisfy this rule or only indirect object pronouns could be used before en/y .

Merci encore !