Use of être and avoir vs. faire I'm not sure where to put these questions. I did read the discussion about Darbeinet's text, which gives examples of measurements. Three examples used avoir and one used être. It did not use faire. (I am not familiar with Darbeinet, just trying to make sense of the discussions.)
The answer was "that Darbeinet's text is a bit out of date and to native speakers (members of the language team and relatives ;-) ), 'faire' is definitely the verb to use here."
The example that used être (from Darbeinet) was "Ce bâtiment est long de trente mètres." I don't see how this differs in construction from "La porte est large d'un mètre", one of two correct answers in a Kwiz.
So être is out of date? But we are being taught être as well as faire? Quoi?
Of the three examples using avoir (from Darbeinet) one is "Ce bâtiment a trente mètres de long." Larousse online has the example "ici la rivière a 2 km de large-- here the river is 2 km wide". (in definition of large) Those two examples seem similar to each other in construction.
A question about "Ce gouffre a trente mètres de profondeur" from a month ago was answered with ---
/Bonjour Tecla,
This question has already been discussed : "faire" is definitely the verb to use./
So, Larousse, also, is wrong/out of date in using avoir as the verb here?
I am truly confused. Reading the linked discussion was part of that confusion.
As 'they' say, halp!
I'm not sure where to put these questions. I did read the discussion about Darbeinet's text, which gives examples of measurements. Three examples used avoir and one used être. It did not use faire. (I am not familiar with Darbeinet, just trying to make sense of the discussions.)
The answer was "that Darbeinet's text is a bit out of date and to native speakers (members of the language team and relatives ;-) ), 'faire' is definitely the verb to use here."
The example that used être (from Darbeinet) was "Ce bâtiment est long de trente mètres." I don't see how this differs in construction from "La porte est large d'un mètre", one of two correct answers in a Kwiz.
So être is out of date? But we are being taught être as well as faire? Quoi?
Of the three examples using avoir (from Darbeinet) one is "Ce bâtiment a trente mètres de long." Larousse online has the example "ici la rivière a 2 km de large-- here the river is 2 km wide". (in definition of large) Those two examples seem similar to each other in construction.
A question about "Ce gouffre a trente mètres de profondeur" from a month ago was answered with ---
/Bonjour Tecla,
This question has already been discussed : "faire" is definitely the verb to use./
So, Larousse, also, is wrong/out of date in using avoir as the verb here?
I am truly confused. Reading the linked discussion was part of that confusion.
As 'they' say, halp!
Bonjour,
I understand that reflexive verbs are used like in english like "myself, yourself, ect" but I don't understand how some of the examples above are actually doing something to oneself. For example, above it says Le prisonnier s'échappe de la prison. How is this an action to oneself? To escape oneself?? Or how about "Nous nous étonnons de ses bonnes notes."? We amaze ourselves? Why is it a reflexive verb and not just conjugated in le present? Thank you!
"mais leur magie demeure avec le spectateur"
--> why cant the verb "rester" be used?
When I get an exercise starting with "Quand j'étais petit" I always think of the song by the same name by Ultra Vomit, a French comedy-metal band. I didn't even know comedy-metal was a genre before I heard them!
"Ils avaient fait..."
"Il avait fait..."
These two sentences sound same. Is there a way that we can understand the correct sujet?
I Have completed A1 & A2. While attempting for a test on this portal I am qualified to learn B1. I am interested to know how long it should take to complete the B1 level?
Many thanks in advance.
To translate the above phrase, why are you recommending the futur ("nous vous offrons") only and not also the futur immédiat ("nous allons vous offrir"). If the "futur immédiat" is not possible, why? If it is, why is the "futur" preferable?
Merci à l'avance
I wonder if we can do the same before verbs starting by a vowel, because in this case n would change the sound a bit.
For example:
- Je n'aime pas de chiens
- J'aime pas de chiens
In the lesson the -i- in Yorkshire is not pronounced as an "ee'' sound (like the ee in ‘fee’ for example) as I would expect, could you please clarify. Thank you.
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