French language Q&A Forum

'qu'il m'a donnée pour mon treizième anniversaire.' - the link you provide with this question, 'special cases of past participle agreement with avoir' describes that, in passé composé with avoir, the past participle must agree with the object when the verb is preceded by a direct object, but also explicitly states that the rule does not apply to indirect objects. Is not 'me' in this case an indirect object (he gave it to me)?

I agree that this is a challenging lesson, and agree it’s a lot of information. Maybe a summary table (column 1 having each form of attendre, column 2 giving that form’s meaning/ translation, column 3 giving the sense, whether positive or negative) would help for quick review. I feel that by the time I get to the bottom of the list, I’ve forgotten the nuance of the definitions further up! A quick reference may help. Thanks for considering.

j'ai faim pour la nourrive de mexicain ( i am hungry for mexican food).

did this make sense?

I understand why we use the definite article for one and possessive adjective for the other buy why are they both singular?

In one of the previous lesson it was taught that we can use "par" with planes, here I use par but it was market incorrectly. 

Hi there! Wondering if you could explain why sometimes "have been + verb" is in the present and sometimes the passé?

E.g.  "... l"alsace est multilingue..." (Alsace has been multilingual...) vs. "l'Alsace a gardé son multilinguisme" (Alsace has kept it's multilingualism) 

Merci d'avance!