French language Q&A Forum

The tittle of the passage is 'A quoi ça sert de trier ses déchets' is translated as what is the use of sorting our waste? Our=notre / nos? and ses = his / her / its? Please help understand if the translation is correct?

Why is it incorrect to write “à deux heures de” rather than “à 2 h de?”

I agree that this is a challenging lesson, and agree it’s a lot of information. Maybe a summary table (column 1 having each form of attendre, column 2 giving that form’s meaning/ translation, column 3 giving the sense, whether positive or negative) would help for quick review. I feel that by the time I get to the bottom of the list, I’ve forgotten the nuance of the definitions further up! A quick reference may help. Thanks for considering.

j'ai faim pour la nourrive de mexicain ( i am hungry for mexican food).

did this make sense?

'qu'il m'a donnée pour mon treizième anniversaire.' - the link you provide with this question, 'special cases of past participle agreement with avoir' describes that, in passé composé with avoir, the past participle must agree with the object when the verb is preceded by a direct object, but also explicitly states that the rule does not apply to indirect objects. Is not 'me' in this case an indirect object (he gave it to me)?

Hi there! Wondering if you could explain why sometimes "have been + verb" is in the present and sometimes the passé?

E.g.  "... l"alsace est multilingue..." (Alsace has been multilingual...) vs. "l'Alsace a gardé son multilinguisme" (Alsace has kept it's multilingualism) 

Merci d'avance!

I understand why we use the definite article for one and possessive adjective for the other buy why are they both singular?

Why would it be "C'était un bâtard" not "Il était un bâtard?" The statement is specific. I asked my partner, who is a native French speaker, and he said both sounded correct/normal to him. He couldn't figure out why the latter is unacceptable, even viewing the rules provided.