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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,408 questions • 31,199 answers • 928,196 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,408 questions • 31,199 answers • 928,196 learners
I would like to particularly congratulate the person who gave us this piece. Not only was it enlightening for me, but it was also a perfect B2 listening exercise. Thank you. Now to my question. I understand the admonition about the use of present tense to relate a historical story. How does the use of the future perfect in the first paragraph relate to this? Were there other choices for this tense?
I'm confused because on many other sites I see both these used as conditionnel. E.g., J'avais pu = I had been able to/could have
Si tu avais pu, tu aurais fait = If you could have, you would have.
Please explain.
I've been wondering if there are definite rules as to whether one adds a "de" sometimes, but sometimes I go awry with an incorrect guess. At present it seems to me that a noun after the second "de" is safe enough. Am I right? The help from the quick lessons is immensely helpful, but thus far I haven't found one which would solve my problem with rules for the 'De's'.
Clive
In “Salut Mathilde, ça te dirait de passer au magasin de fripes au kilo ? Salut Paul ! Oui carrément, ils ont plein de nouveautés en plus, il faut qu'on y aille avant qu'ils soient dévalisés.”
Should it be “dévalisées” because “they” are the “nouveautés” which are female & plural?
Thank you for making this available! This is a fantastic resource!
The sentence refers to buying a "region". To me, that implies a rather large estate with a fancy house and well-kept grounds. My dictionary gives 'terres' as the preferred choice over 'domaine' when referring to lands. Should this option not be added? If not, why is domaine preferred?
would 'j'ai achete pour ma mere un weekend' be correct ? ( cant do the accents )
Can you explain why you can put bien meilleure after the noun? I know that meilleur always goes before the noun, but I did'nt realise that it could go after the noun when used with bien. Why is that?
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