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14,865 questions • 32,305 answers • 1,003,854 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,865 questions • 32,305 answers • 1,003,854 learners
Some example please, in negative and questions?
How do you know 'lui' in the instance below is a woman?
Il n'avait jamais pu lui avouer la vérité?
Can’t there be two correct answers to this statement about France’s territory depending on whether you are referring to ‘the territory’ or the territories ‘climate and relief’?
Two simple questions:i
I retook the exercise and used 'observer' instead of 'regarder' as I think it would work just fine in this case, but it was marked wrong. From the dictionary entry it seems that observer would apply equally well in this case.
I also used 'le Moyen Age' instead of 'l'epoque medievale'. I realise that the latter is a more direct translation, but I am much more familiar with 'le Moyen Age'. Is there a general preference for one experession over the other?
Merci a tous !
Why is it not "Non, ici rien n'est PAS cher"?
I saw in a previous post that you refer us to Ne ... rien = Nothing (French Negations), but this says that you don't need "pas" in situations where you use a different word in place of "pas"... so you could use "n'est rien" instead of "n'est pas". But in the text above, "rien" is already in the sentence, so we shouldn't repeat it, right? So, where is the "PAS"? Or can any adjective simply replace the "pas"?
Please clarify... et merci beaucoup!
Hi,
I had a doubt regarding this statement :
Je pense que tu vendrais facilement ta maison.
Shouldn't statements with penser/croire etc only be followed by indicatif in the positive or subjonctif in the negative? In what cases can we use conditionnel? I would think this particular sentence should use vendre in the future tense. So:
Je pense que tu vendras facilement ta maison.
Please let me know.
Thanks and regards
Roopa
Is there a way to add accents on the letters? I don't have them on my keyboard...I still enjoyed this practice though!
Why in the above translation has the word 'gotten' been used? Although acceptable in USA + Canada, it is regarded as bad grammar in the UK? I had got....... ought to be the translation.
Bit of clarification please:-
- Isn't 'I pass by the new coffee shop' better translated by 'passe par' ? The exercise on Passer gives -Passer par / devant ... (to pass by / in front of...)
- does not 'J'aime' mean 'I love' and wouldn't 'J'aime bien 'I like' be better in this instance? (the excercise on Aimer says 'Note that when using aimer bien, it actually lessens its meaning from 'to love' to 'to like' [someone] / [something].'
In this sentence - 'Ce n'est pas tant qu'elle n'aime pas ça, mais plutôt qu'elle aime trop ça ' - why is ça preferred over le? Does 'Ce n'est pas tant qu'elle ne l'aime pas, mais plutôt qu'elle l'aime trop' sound wrong to French ears?
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