Factors that went into Lawless French classifying the Conditional as a mood in it's own right.After all this time learning French l decide today to develop an English/French go-to chart for translation purposes.
All of a sudden, the conditional tense sitting in the indicative mood in my little Bescherelle conjugaison book looks out of place. Why is it there, in a mood that expresses facts and certainties, things that definitely happened?
A little research in Bescherelle, on the web and here surface the fact that the Conditional in French is often classified as a mood unto itself (as in Lawless French) due to it's hypothetical expressions; and that more often, today, "pour des raisons de forme et de sens"(Bescherelle p.140), as a tense under the imperative. An example given for the latter is that "aurait" , conditional present, equates the future present transposed into the past. So interesting! I had not seen this before.
I wonder, what went into Lawless French's decision to classify the Conditional as a mood apart instead of as under the Indicative mood? Either works , l am just curious.
After all this time learning French l decide today to develop an English/French go-to chart for translation purposes.
All of a sudden, the conditional tense sitting in the indicative mood in my little Bescherelle conjugaison book looks out of place. Why is it there, in a mood that expresses facts and certainties, things that definitely happened?
A little research in Bescherelle, on the web and here surface the fact that the Conditional in French is often classified as a mood unto itself (as in Lawless French) due to it's hypothetical expressions; and that more often, today, "pour des raisons de forme et de sens"(Bescherelle p.140), as a tense under the imperative. An example given for the latter is that "aurait" , conditional present, equates the future present transposed into the past. So interesting! I had not seen this before.
I wonder, what went into Lawless French's decision to classify the Conditional as a mood apart instead of as under the Indicative mood? Either works , l am just curious.
I thought only the first letter of titles was capitalized in French. For example, in a catalogue, the title of the book "Gabrielle Roy: La détresse et l'enchantement" is written with only the proper name and the first word of the subtitle in capitals.
this essay is straight to the point love it
Salut a tous
Tu ne sais pas qui l'a fait. You don't know who did it.
and
Je ne sais pas ce qui se passe. I don't know what's going on.
We have here QUI as who and QUI as what.
How do I know to use QUI rather than QUE for what
Merci
In the lesson it says: In French, you use pour + [durée] only to express a duration in the future., however in Lawless French:
https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/depuis-vs-il-y-a/?fbclid=IwAR2Yy7q_glAFPUv54NKv_xYP9EW4oqW84FTg9NIggZZ3CBgjSxE3JPbHAbc
SynonymsPour and pendant can replace depuis only when the verb is in the past tense.
J’étudiais pour / pendant quatre heures quand il a téléphoné. I’d been studying for four hours when he called.J’étais anxieux pour / pendant deux semaines. I’d been anxious for two weeks.It seems to contradict this. So I am confused. Can someone clarify please.
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