Le or Ça for 'it' - Why?
There are a number of questions/comments here on the use of "ça" for 'it' (going to the pool every week) in this exercise. Why is < Elle adorait (ou aimait beaucoup) ça ! > correct, and why is < Elle l'adorait > not accepted?
Thought it might be helpful to clarify further, supplementing the other discussions below.
According to the linked lesson le/l' can only replace previously mentioned ideas etc 'introduced' under 1 of 2 conditions : either preceded by < que >, or with a verb infinitive. Because neither of these conditions is met in the sentence in this exercise, < le or l' > cannot be used in this context.
From this, the use of ça instead of le/l' is not related to 'aimer' or other verbs as some of the discussion suggests, but to the lack of the "preconditions" - < Il vas détester le repas ce soir ?/ Non, il vas bien l'aimer ! >
Using neuter pronouns le or l' to refer to previously mentioned ideas (French Direct Object Pronouns)%252Fsearch%253Fs%253Dle%252Bidea
Hope this helps others who come here with this question too.
There are a number of questions/comments here on the use of "ça" for 'it' (going to the pool every week) in this exercise. Why is < Elle adorait (ou aimait beaucoup) ça ! > correct, and why is < Elle l'adorait > not accepted?
Thought it might be helpful to clarify further, supplementing the other discussions below.
According to the linked lesson le/l' can only replace previously mentioned ideas etc 'introduced' under 1 of 2 conditions : either preceded by < que >, or with a verb infinitive. Because neither of these conditions is met in the sentence in this exercise, < le or l' > cannot be used in this context.
From this, the use of ça instead of le/l' is not related to 'aimer' or other verbs as some of the discussion suggests, but to the lack of the "preconditions" - < Il vas détester le repas ce soir ?/ Non, il vas bien l'aimer ! >
Using neuter pronouns le or l' to refer to previously mentioned ideas (French Direct Object Pronouns)%252Fsearch%253Fs%253Dle%252Bidea
Hope this helps others who come here with this question too.
I'm wondering if one would say "Je l'ai appelé(e?)." or "Je les ai appelé(e?)s." I've seen entries giving it as a feminine singular noun (based on 'la police' perhaps?), masculine singular (based on 'le secours' I'm guessing...), and plural. If it can be either or if it's "none of the above", I would like to know. Merci.
This weeks Weekend workout (A Lovely Encounter 31-09-2018) asks for a translation of 'She had just closed her eyes when she heard a little squeal comming from the bushes.'
For the 'when she heard' section I answered: 'quand elle a entendu' but the answer was given as 'quand elle entendit' (passé sample).
Could you please explain why "quand elle a entendu" is incorrect.
Hi, the options “assoyez-vous” & “asseyez-vous” have hyphens, but the two instances of “veuillez vous asseoir” do not have one between “veuillez” & “vous”. It looks like these are all “short reversed-form questions”, so is there a reason for this difference?
Why does the young woman have a lilt on words at the end of her phrases? Is that a cultural thing? It reminds me of a California "valley girl" accent...
Shouldn't this be changed to the below to avoid any confusion?
Avoir [nombre] ans = To have [number] years
My aim is to speak French fleuntly
Hi. I am trying to figure out why this uses the passe compose if followed by 'que'.
Les fleurs que j'ai senties étaient belles.
Would you not be able to use "que j'aie senties" instead of "que j'ai senties", because I remember seeing that when there is "que" we use subjonctif. I do notice this seems to be past tense which is why I ask if the Subjonctif Passe can be used. I am unsure if I have worded my question well, in that you may understand. I appreciate any help provided.
Somehow, I thought we always use "de" before a plural noun preceded by an adjective?
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