French language Q&A Forum

Bonjour Madame Cécile !

A sentence provided reads- 

1.Les gens...........on a passé une semaine en France, avaient deux chats adorables.

The answer I gave was -> avec qui/avec lesquels.

However, the correct answer was -> chez qui/chez lesquels.

2.Le bâtiment.............tu avais garé ta voiture était juste à côté de la poste.

Here also, Madame , the correct option was devant lequel as opposed to dans lequel.(mentioned by me)

3.Connais-tu le médecin.............. il s’est fait soigner ?

In this case I am confused whether the right answer is chez lequel or par lequel ?

I request you to please provide a grammatical explanation why my options were not the accepted ones.

Merci beaucoup pour votre réponse !

Bonne journée !

Why don't we need to put 'être' in front of the word 'sale' and 'en bataille'?

My comment relates to English rather than French usage in that I think some non-native English speakers may be confused by the sentence in the second example you give. "Sarah didn't use to trust Thomas" The past participle of "to use" in this case is "used " not "use" although it may be that common America English practice may differ. You could employ "use" to say that "I didn't use the books you suggested" but you would need "used" in front of an infinitive such as "I used to live in London" or "I used to trust you". I refer you to Fowler's Modern English Usage 2nd Ed. p670 where it is pointed out that the modern expression "he used to" replaces an arcane "he uses to". Just to point out that English can be just as exacting as French. Cordialement. K

Hi,

When I am talking about myself and where I live, ,,

What shall I use (à or en)

And also what are the differences between both words

Thank you so much 

Pourquoi "Moi aussi j'aime les salades"  Elle référence des salades en générale non?  Pas les salades spécifique?

cca

It seems to be that "Emilie et toi" = "vous," you plural => 2nd person plural verb.

But the right answer was a third person plural verb.

Why is the answer "We will make a cake in a bit" and not "We are going to make a cake in a bit"? I can't see a meaningful difference between the 2 options in English.

Thanks in advance!

Hi Cécile, this question (see link below) has been asked and received no answer. Can you shed some light on it?

https://progress.lawlessfrench.com/questions/view/why-is-the-subjonctive-not-used-in-the-phrase-il-ne-pense-pas-qu-il-sera-la-a-temps-i-thought-penser