French language Q&A Forum

I’m finding it hard to understand why coiffées isn’t coiffés, with direct object agreement, cheveux being a masculine plural noun?

can anybody explain why one is used rather  than other please. in the question it was a mon pere and to finish sentence so i put a moi, but wrong and should be me.

can anybody explain why one is used rather  than other please. in the question it was a mon pere and to finish sentence so i put a moi, but wrong and should be me.

can anybody explain why one is used rather  than other please. in the question it was a mon pere and to finish sentence so i put a moi, but wrong and should be me.

can anybody explain why one is used rather  than other please. in the question it was a mon pere and to finish sentence so i put a moi, but wrong and should be me.

Please help! Text: "Le matin on fait le lit. On le couvre pour faire joli et bien rangé." I translated it loosely as "we cover it(the bed) for 'it' to be pretty and tidy"  But why is it not '.. pour le faire joli et bien rangé ' (why is the object pronoun not repeated??) Without the object pronoun (pour le faire) couldnt it also mean "we cover it (the bed) to be 'pretty and tidy'...(we do it so we appear to be nice and organized). Bottom line... what is the grammar explanation, if any, for no 'le/la' between pour and faire in the text.