French language Q&A Forum

In the 4th sentence: entre chercher les œufs et les manger, why are these verbs in the infinitive form. I thought they would be in the gerund. Thank you!

Why is this text written mostly in present tense but translated in past tense? How can we know when it's appropriate to use this technique to make our own storytelling easier?

The question was: 'How would you say "He appeared in front of me." ?' However, the answer list only allowed for one answer, such as 'il est apparu devant moi' and not the second answer, 'Il a apparu devant moi'. Perhaps a slight re-design of the question might help?

I was how to rephrase "Je me souviens de votre frere" and I answered "Je me rappelle de votre frere". This was scored as incorrect, with the correct response given as "Je me rappelle votre frere". Aren't both "se rappeler de" and "se rappeler" correct?

'Je ne peux pas entendre' versus 'Je n'entends pas' . Do these 2 sentences translate differently as the 1st indicates there is an external reason for not hearing (music too soft), while the 2nd indicates an inherent hearing loss  (deafness)? Does this apply to other Modal verbs? If so, examples really help with understanding. Thanks in advance.

This is a trick, isn't it. That 'to inhabit' is a synonym for 'to live in' in English is exploited here. Damn you.

Hi,

I'm wondering why it's ok for the nouns in this sentence (in subject line) to not have any articles (definite or indefinite)?

Thank you!

Lorie

In this question

shouldn't be replaced by ? I thought was a used to introduce an itinerary, as in

In a recent test I was asked to complete the following; Yves a les yeux…….( Yves has brown eyes). I wrote Yves a les yeux bruns which was deemed incorrect; why? My Harraps French English Dictionary assures me that either brun or marron can be used in this context.

Please can someone explain why, when there is an inverted question and the subject is a noun, there is not a comma after the subject, as I was taught when I learned French at school?