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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,018 questions • 30,335 answers • 877,781 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,018 questions • 30,335 answers • 877,781 learners
Please clarify why in this lesson the passé composé is used in "Depuis que je t'ai rencontré, ma vie a complètement changé" but present tense is used in "Depuis que j'ai quatre ans, je porte des lunettes." Thanks.
Hi, I saw the below sentence:
Zoé découpe les images de papier.
Why not des instead of les?
I believe it should be des images de papier because images are plural
Thank you
Hello I have a question.
Why in French some colors are plural?
I'm new to using Kwiziq and I'm just figuring out how to use it on a day to day basis. When I had 10 recommended lessons, I read through all of them carefully and then did a test. What surprises me is that the bot keeps so many lessons. Are we expected to read them again? Or do most users just read the lessons they haven't already read, and then take another test?
Why is it emue and not emué here?
Is there a way to avoid going all the way back to page 1 of the Q & A section when what is wanted is, for example, on page 7? By the way, the vast majority of the answers provided seem to be clear and appropriate and are much appreciated.
Regarding the question asked by Kyaw: perhaps the lesson "Nouns that are plural in English but singular in French, and vice versa" could have a few more examples added, including words such as 'vaisselle'. This is only a suggestion!
Several times you have used "profiter de" to mean to enjoy. The dictionary I looked at defined profiter a to mean "to be of benefit to" and profiter de as "to take advantage of." Neither of these seems (to me. at least) to imply to enjoy or to take pleasure from. Why do you choose to use it rather than something like prendre plaisir de or some other more enjoyable-sounding term? ( Sorry, but the computer doesn't seem to respond to the holding down of letters for which an accent or other diacritical mark is needed, so my questions are grammatically incorrect......)
I used touchant in the above translation rather than the given "emue." I was wondering if there was a semantic or connatative difference between the two or are they interchangeable.
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