French language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,803 questions • 32,077 answers • 985,126 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,803 questions • 32,077 answers • 985,126 learners
Hi,
I'm wondering why it's ok for the nouns in this sentence (in subject line) to not have any articles (definite or indefinite)?
Thank you!
Lorie
et il m'a dit qu'il en avait encore
Hi! Just got a couple questions here:
What's the difference between "parfum" and "arôme"? Are they not interchangeable?
I thought that "marchand de glace" would refer to a person, not a place. Is "salon de glace" not a thing? Does "café-glacier" work at all?
Thanks in advance!!
From the lesson «When talking about two actions that happen simultaneously, you will use :
en + Participe présent / Gérondif»; can you not also use imparfait and passé composé eg Je courait quand j'ai rencontré Mathilde ? I am not suggesting the same meaning or English translation, but the sentence still describes the simultaneous occurrence of events, that could also be described using le gérondif. If that is correct, the quote from the lesson should replace 'will use' with 'can use' (and preferably reference the lesson on passé composé and imparfait being used together as another). If there are reasons to choose one over the other, worth noting as well.
What the meaning of Dish fumé??? It's really strange, the dish don't smoke... ahahhaha
In the sentence in the south of France the answer is le sud but in a previous exercise (Bastille Day) it was du sud. Are both acceptable ? Also in the best answer it is C'étaient but in the final paragraph it is C'était. Are both correct or is this an error?
This is the first lesson I can't work out the difference between the two structures something + "plaît à..." versus the reflexive something + "me plaisent."
Both descriptions say they are to like something, I can't work out when to use which structure. I've re-read the lesson about 3 times, so I'm looking for additional clarification..
There were two examples of phrases where the French reversed the order of the adjectives as they appeared in English (autobiographical feminist manifesto = manifeste féministe autobiographique; unforgettable literary experience = expérience littéraire inoubliable). Is there any kind of rule to this sequencing?
Find your French level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your French level