Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone.Hello,
I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.
Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):
1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.
2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.
3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.
Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?
Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.
Thank you for your help.
The two answers so far have differing advice. Could Cécile comment please?
Laura Lawless’s explanation seems to accord with Alan’s - se parler is one of "20 verbs for which the reflexive pronoun is always an indirect object" (That is, they’re talking to each other, not talking each other, and parlé is invariable.)
https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/agreement-with-pronominal-verbs/
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Hello,
I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.
Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):
1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.
2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.
3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.
Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?
Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.
Thank you for your help.
I am sorry to raise this, but I am afraid that I found the pronunciation of this phrase very difficult.
Even having seen the answer, I still could not reconcile the two. "le temps" I managed to translate initially when hearing it as "longtemps", but seeing the correct answer and re-running the sound clip again and again, the closest I could get was "l'eau temps" and certainly not "le temps".
I recognize that there are many different ways of pronouncing things, but I do feel that in a dictation the diction should be clear.
I *think* I understand when to use “avoir besoin de” or “devoir”, but how/where does “falloir” work? (Note: I asked a similar question in the lesson on “falloir”)
How do I know which one to use? If I want to say “he needs to go grocery shopping” (for example), are “il doit faire ses courses” and “il faut faire ses courses” equivalent or is there some nuance that doesn’t come through in English?
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