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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,057 questions • 32,738 answers • 1,042,511 learners
If, as mentioned, most people use the subjonctif after "après que", wouldn't it be odd to a francophone to hear the passé composé?
Après que je SUIS allé????
Even school teachers would say " Après que je SOIS allé"
Suggest translate the French expression with an English equivalent expression - eg 'first go' or 'first time' : "But, I managed first go/time" ? Using more formal English confuses the translation, especially when it is changed from the general 'first go' to the specific 'on my first attempt'.
I don't fish - but looking at Larousse and the Académie site, it seems 'les leurres' is more appropriate for "the lures, and "appat" for bait. Les leurres gets a strikethrough currently, but is correct.
I get a bit confused when, due to the speaker being female, we do/do not add an “e” to the past participle. Here, for instance, I was expecting “vue”.
This question was found on a C1 test. The answer that was provided was: Nous avons ouvert les fenêtres de peur qu'il n'ait une fuite de gaz.
My problem is with the use of the word might. Might means may be, could be, which suggests the use of pouvoir, de peur qu'il ne puisse y avoir une fuite de gaz. When translating the answer that was given, I would say: We opened the windows out of fear there was a gas leak. No might is needed.
Hi, I just came across this on a test and I wrote that it could mean Jack descended on the giant (as opposed to the stairs ) and this was marked incorrect but in the explanation it states that they descended the stairs requires avoir as the auxillary verb so I cannot see why descending on the giant is any different? They both have a direct object.
I am a bit confused about this. Thanks
Hello,
So If I'm understanding this correctly when the definite article is before a noun it remains when the verb is negative?
il aime le Café et le chocolate.
Il n'aime ni le Café ni le chocolate
But if the indefinite or partitive article is before a noun in an affirmative sentence the article is then removed when negative?
Elle commande de l'eau et du vin.
Elle ne commande ni eau ni vin.
Thanks
Nicole
Thanks for trying to help Chris but I'm afraid it still doesn't clarify it. You said that it was asking for the present subjunctive in your 1st answer but in your second answer you say "The PAST subjunctive is used here to express that between" actions " 1) and 2) there is no temporal overlap. "
Perhaps if I ask it a different way
The English version is "Before I started to learn french". 'Started" is in the past tense, therefore shouldn't I translate it into the past subjunctive ie "avant que je n'aie commencé à apprendre le Français"
Thanks
Il va leur téléphoner.He's going to telephone themIl va appeler ses parents. -> Il va les appeler.He's going to call his parents. -> He's going to call them.
In these above examples, why are both the direct and indirect object pronouns placed in between the verbs instead of in front of both of them?
Merci.
Is "râper" really pronounced to rhyme with "cher"? Because that's the pronunciation given when you click on the speaker button in the "Cooking / Faire la cuisine (v)" vocabulary list at https://progress.lawlessfrench.com/learn/theme/1513111
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