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15,029 questions • 32,585 answers • 1,026,566 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,029 questions • 32,585 answers • 1,026,566 learners
In two places in this exercise the adjective precedes the noun. I don't understand why. Can someone explain? The situations were "L'imposant animal" and "riches plantations." Thanks.
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II noticed that she pronounces the s at the end of "plus". I have never understood when to pronounce this and when not. Could someone explain please?
Having completed all the grammar lessons, I am now going through the listening exercises, (in order of levels), which I am enjoying as a great way to review lessons and vocabulary.
Just a note: I found this exercise among the A1 listening exercises, but above it is labeled as A2.
Maybe it is mislabeled?
In the following example, I am struggling to understand why we must use la and not lui? To me, it sounds like the sentence requires an indirect object pronoun, because the question "What" is not answered in response to the "must", which is the verb in this sentence. I use the "what" test to determine if there is a direct object in the sentence. With this sentence, should I consider "what must they warn" as my question, or "what must they do". Apologies if my line of thought is completely skewed but it seems to work in most cases.
Does Julie know? We must warn her ,
- Julie est au courant ? Il faut lui prévenir,- Julie est au courant ? Il faut la prévenir,Can I refer this way only to Anna (respectfully) or the sentence definitely refers to multiple female persons?
When do I use "ne...que" and when do I use "ne...plus que"?
I answered "je n'en ai aucun". Is this not correct as well as just "aucun" ? The example that Celine gives below seems to indicate that's an option.
Elderly Brit here. I would use the English past perfect in both halves of a sentence like "By the time I had finished eating, he had drunk a whole bottle" - when he’s drunk the bottle, I’ve already finished eating, a completed action.
Without wanting to split hairs, is the concept of the French "le temps que" slightly different to "by the time that" or does it just take (to my mind!) a less logical tense?
-Il s'agissait de la correspondance qu'avaient
-Il s'agissait de la correspondance qu'avait
Both were given as the correct response - 'avait' in the main response and 'avaient' in the compare your answer box.
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