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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,815 questions • 32,093 answers • 987,018 learners
I am curious about the construction of ...fait de lui... Why not ...lui fait...? It seems to me that 'him', in the English, is the indirect object of faire while Français is the direct object. I used ...lui fait..., which was not one of the accepted translations. Why?
"Il avait même fallu que les autorités démentissent le canular". According to a conjugation guide I use, this sentence appears to use "démentir" in the subjunctif imparfait, which I think is rarely used today in French. Would it be better as "que les autorités démentent" (present subjunctive)? Or maybe "aient démenti" if a subjunctive in the past tense is needed here?
I know it must be my ear, but, having listened to it over and over, it seems the speaker says "mais cera n'est pas obligatoire."
As I understand it, dans can also be used when the sentence implies a future action but not duration?
Why is there a direct object pronoun in this sentence, "je poserai autant de vacances que je le pourrai"? What does "le" refer to here? Can you say, "je poserai autant de vacances que je pourrai"?
I am going to go and I will go seem the same in English. Can they be used this way in French? Is it a matter of preference?
Hi, I used " pour autant que je m'en souvienne" and it marked my answer as wrong. Can someone please explain that. thanks
Assuming I have not misunderstood the situation, I notice that you follow your guidance 'avoir + entré [quelque chose] dans [quelque chose]' with a single example in which the 'dans [quelque chose]' does not in fact occur. You might want to omit this aspect from the wider stated rule, retaining your current illustration (which would then be correct), and follow up with the information that in most examples 'dans [quelque chose]' occurs, then adding an additional example to illustrate that fact, which at the moment is not illustrated.
Mon chien favorit s'appelait Pip. Why the imparfait here? It seems a simple statement, neither ongoing, repeated nor descriptive. It doesn't seem to fulfill any of the criteria of the imparfait.
I thought I’d sorted this out already but evidently not. I believe that the answer I gave in the heading is, according to the lecture notes, correct. Correction welcome. So why was it marked wrong and the correct answer given as “je suis avec cinq minutes d’avance”? I’m fine with this answer too but why was my answer marked as incorrect?
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