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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,557 questions • 31,498 answers • 945,663 learners
The lesson says:
Conjugations of APPARAÎTRE (to appear) in Le Passé
Composé (Indicatif) in French
j'/je
suis apparu(e)
tu
es apparu(e)
il / elle / on
est apparu(e)(s)
nous
sommes apparu(e)s
Re Daniel E’s post and responses below
I’m finding the use of the subjunctive past for future actions unexpectedly tricky, I think because the English "I need to leave by nine" or "they need us to arrive", already includes the idea of a completed future action (you can’t leave without having left or arrive without having arrived!)
Is the subjunctive present ever an option in this type of sentence or is the subjunctive past mandated?
So the question was:
How would you say ''You haven't lived here long.'' ?
1. Tu n'as pas habité ici depuis longtemps.
2. Tu n'habites pas ici depuis longtemps.
3. Tu n'habitais pas ici depuis longtemps.
4. Tu ne vas pas habiter ici depuis longtemps.
So the instructions are that with negation depuis is in passe composé, so I picked the answer number 1, but in results this was wrong as they wanted present - answer number 2.
What gives?
Biscuits is plural. Surely it should be:
I had eaten all the biscuits, and there were none left for the guests!
Thanks, Stephen
Il va leur téléphoner.He's going to telephone themIl va appeler ses parents. -> Il va les appeler.He's going to call his parents. -> He's going to call them.
In these above examples, why are both the direct and indirect object pronouns placed in between the verbs instead of in front of both of them?
Merci.
Why is there no preposition "de" after the verb "descend" in the phrase: "Elle descend les escaliers" ?
In the translation of ” and I'm skint [US: broke] because of all the gifts that I must buy”, they use the expression ”à cause de” for because of. I was wondering if "en raison de" could be substituted for "à cause de". I tried it but it wasn't accepted. Is there a subtle difference that I don't understand?
Whilst not specific to this lesson - there are lot of references in these lessons to language choices that are "more elegant" than another. Is this just another way of saying "more formal", or do the French have a specific desire or appreciation for elegant language? In English we would never describe our language choices as one way being more elegant than another. I'm just curious!
Just to be sure. Negation also requires masculine form, am I right ?
La jupe coûte 30€. - Ce n'est pas cher !
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