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14,682 questions • 31,829 answers • 965,996 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,682 questions • 31,829 answers • 965,996 learners
"J'aurais une grande maison si j'en avais les moyens"
Why is the imparfait "avais" used here? "Could" is conditional, so why are we not using "pourrais" here?
In terms of translating into French, it seems that the two phrases above are equivalent in meaning. All the examples use a construction in English that is correct but not necessarily how people would say it. It would be quite normal and grammatically correct to say the simpler phrase, "I just ate my breakfast." Would someone ever use the passe compose in the "venir de + infinitive", and if so, what does it mean in English? I expect that the venir in the pluperfect + infinitive would mean "I HAD just [done something]."
I'm really confused. I was marked wrong on a test when I put 'le jour de la Paques' for 'Easter Day'. The correct answer is supposedly 'le jour de Paques'.
Which is it?
In the sentence "Tu veux des épinards", Why is it "des épinards"? I understand that des is used to mean some when things are countable. But I don't understand why spinach is considered to be countable,
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