French language Q&A Forum

Translated as: "Out of all the lies you told, none is believable."

Is this French example used simply to illustrate French grammar?

Because as a statement of logic, the statement is nonsense.  The second half of the statement is superfluous. Lies are ipso facto not credible (that is the nature of a lie). So of course 100% of the time they are not credible.

As an analogy, no one would say: "Out of all the green marbles you gave me, none is orange."

If instead you said: "Out of all the statements you told, none is believable" (or correct in French: "De tous les choses que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"?) or "Out of all the marbles you gave me, none is orange", these full sentences have logical meaning.

In the writing challenge "The benefits of music" these sentences appear:

"Que ce soit le jazz, le rock ou la variété, il est indéniable que la musique fait partie intégrante de nos vies. Mais que nous apporte-t-elle qui nous soit si indispensable ? C'est bien connu : la musique adoucit les mœurs."

Why is "il est" applicable in the first bold phrase but "c'est" in the second? It appears to me that both are making general statements (about la musique) and both follow est by an adjectival phrase - not a noun, so I would think that case 2a applies in the A1 lessonn "C'est vs il/elle est: Saying it is".

Perhaps that rule is inappropriate here since "la musique" is not a "pre-mentioned thing" but what are the rules being followed here?