French language Q&A Forum

This week's Weekend Workout (31-08-2018) has a question and answer as detailed below.

The translation for 'we arrived' is given in the imparfait but surely it should be in the Passé composé as they arrived only 'once' and not as the imparfait implies 'used to arrive' meaning they arrived on a regular basis i.e. more than just on the one occasion.

Could you please explain.

When we arrived in the changing rooms,

Quand nous arrivions dans les vestiaires,

Is it a fair assumption that all monosyllabic adjectives ending in “er” are pronounced the same when converted to the feminine “ère” ending? “Cher”and “chère”, for example? Whereas multi syllable “er” adjectives must change pronunciation in the feminine? “Dernier” versus “dernière”? 

I always assumed that the accent grave was added to certain words to change the stress and pronunciation. If so, why is the accent grave added to words like “Cher” in the feminine if the pronunciation does not change?

Does this question make sense?

Thank you!