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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,861 questions • 32,298 answers • 1,003,457 learners
I notice that in most of the exercises, "J'aime beaucoup" is often used when followed by a noun, (e.g. J'aime beaucoup mon cousin Benjamin; Elle aime beaucoup les livres)
Whereas "J'aime bien" is often followed by verb (e.g. j'aime bien rester chez moi)
I am just wondering if they are completely interchangeable and if there is a tenancy of beaucoup use more with nouns and bien more with verbs.
It isn't pleasant
I find it confusing that a more literal translation, like “this doesn’t please me” wasn’t offered as an option? If it’s simply equivalent to “je ne l’aime pas” (or however one constructs the idea of dislike using ne aimer pas), why bother using a verb (plaire) whose meaning is subtly different from the answer’s translation (aimer)? In English, there is a difference between being “pleased by your selection” and “liking your selection” with the former implying an enjoyment of the selector’s taste, perhaps a hint of expectation exceeded, whereas the latter simply means that the chosen thing is one I like. Does this nuance not exist in French?
The week (in which) they stayed at the hotel went quickly.
?....La semaine pendant laquelle ils sont restés...?
Does this mean it isn't acceptable to use it on its own when speaking?
Two of the three options for this were "Oh! I watched this one yesterday too" and "Oh! I watched it yesterday too." I selected the first option, because "ça" is a demonstrative pronoun, not a personal pronoun. But the microquiz said that "I watched IT" was the correct selection. I was happier when I went to an explanation, because there, the translation was "I watched THAT." Should "ça" ever be translated as "it"? I'm sure this is nitpicky, but I'm a linguist fluent in Spanish, and the details matter to me!
Thank you.
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